Valid 101 Exam Q&A PDF 101 Dump is Ready (Updated 240 Questions) [Q64-Q87]

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Valid 101 Exam Q&A PDF 101 Dump is Ready (Updated 240 Questions)

Exam Questions and Answers for  101 Study Guide


Who should take the F5 101 exam

The F5 Application Delivery Fundamentals 101 Exam certification is an internationally-recognized validation that identifies persons who earn it as possessing skilled as F5 Certified BIG-IP Administrator and F5 Certified Sales Professional. If a candidate wants significant improvement in career growth needs enhanced knowledge, skills, and talents. The F5 Application Delivery Fundamentals 101 Exam certification provide proof of this advanced knowledge and skill. If a candidate has knowledge of associated technologies and skills that are required to pass F5 Application Delivery Fundamentals 101 Exam then he should take this exam.

 

NEW QUESTION 64
When upgrading a BIG-IP redundant pair, what happens when one system has been updated but the other has not.

  • A. Synching should not be performed.
  • B. The first system to be updated will assume the Active role.
  • C. This is not possible since both systems are updated simultaneously.
  • D. The older system will issue SNMP traps indicating a communication error with the partner.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 65
When initially configuring the GTM System using the config tool, which two parameters can be set?
(Choose two.)

  • A. System hostname
  • B. IP Address of the external VLAN
  • C. Default route for management port
  • D. Port lockdown of management port
  • E. IP Address of management port

Answer: C,E

 

NEW QUESTION 66
When initially configuring the BIG-IP system using the config utility, which two parameters can be set. (Choose two.)

  • A. the IP address of the host via the management port
  • B. the port lockdown settings for the host via the management port
  • C. the netmask of the SCCP
  • D. the port lockdown settings for the SCCP
  • E. the netmask of the host via the management port
  • F. the IP address of the SCCP

Answer: A,E

Explanation:
Explanation

 

NEW QUESTION 67
Which of the following user roles have access to make changes to security policies? (Choose two.)

  • A. Guest
  • B. Administrator
  • C. Web Application Security Editor
  • D. Operator

Answer: B,C

 

NEW QUESTION 68
What is the purpose of floating self-IP addresses?

  • A. to define an address that allows either system to initiate communication at any time
  • B. to define an address that grants administrative access to either system at any time
  • C. to define an address that allows network devices to route traffic via a single IP address
  • D. to define an address that gives network devices greater flexibility in choosing a path to forward traffic

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 69
In order to ensure that a specific file type is never moved down to a secondary file tier, the administrator should:

  • A. This is not possible on the ARX.
  • B. Instruct the end users to put the file in a non-tiered directory.
  • C. Set a policy that the file type remains on primary storage.
  • D. Set up an automated bot that accesses that file once a week.

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 70
Which of the following are the three main business drivers for placing LTM into a network?

  • A. Secure the connection between WAN sites
  • B. Act as a Web application firewall
  • C. Boost application performance
  • D. Include application security
  • E. Improve application availability and scalability
  • F. Authenticate and authorize users

Answer: C,D,E

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

 

NEW QUESTION 71
Network Security personnel are entirely responsible for web application security.

  • A. True
  • B. False

Answer: B

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:
Explanation:

 

NEW QUESTION 72
The following iRule is being used within a persistence profile on a virtual server. Assuming
the following HTTP requests are made within the same timeout window, what is the maximum number of persistence records that will be created iRule: rule Persist_Universal { when HTTP_REQUEST { persist uie [findstr [HTTP ::uri] "?" 8 3] } Requests:
#1 http: I/www.test.com/input.html?testl 45ABR80 #2 http ://www.test.com/input .html?testl 35PDC72 #3 http :llwww.test. com/input.html?testl
25ABR76 #4 http
://www.test.com/input.html?testl
45MN088 #5
http
://www.test.
com/input.html?testl
55ABR98
#6
http
://www.test.com/input.html?testl
45
PDC6O #7
http
://www.test.
com/input.html?testl
75ABC50
#8
http
://www.test.com/input.html?testl
25MN055 #9
http:
llwww.test.
com/input.html?testl
45ABC70
#10
http
://www.test.com/input.html?testl
35PDC42

  • A. 0
  • B. 1
  • C. 2
  • D. It cannot be determined from the given data.
  • E. 3
  • F. 4
  • G. 5

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 73
Which high availability feature allows two different BIG-IP devices to use the MAC address for the same server IP?

  • A. HSRP virtual MAC address
  • B. Sync- failover
  • C. MAC masquerade
  • D. Device group

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 74
The BIG-IP ASM System sets two types of cookies to enforce elements in the security policy. The two types are main and frame cookies. What is the purpose of the frame cookie? (Choose 2)

  • A. Handles dynamic parameter names and flow extractions
  • B. Validates domain cookies
  • C. Stores dynamic parameters and values
  • D. Detects session expiration

Answer: A,C

 

NEW QUESTION 75
Which four of these statements regarding object size and WebAccelerator performance are true? (Choose four.)

  • A. Large objects such as video cache well
  • B. Large objects result in higher throughput
  • C. Large objects allow fewer requests per second
  • D. Small objects such as images cache well
  • E. Small objects result in higher throughput
  • F. Small objects allow more requests per second

Answer: B,C,D,F

 

NEW QUESTION 76
A _______ object maps a FQDN to virtual servers.

Answer:

Explanation:
Wide IP

 

NEW QUESTION 77
Which of the following is NOT a benefit of using SSL offload?

  • A. It enables LTM to decrypt traffic, examine the payload, and the re-encrypt before sending it to a poolmember
  • B. It enables iRules to be used on traffic arriving to LTM that is encrypted
  • C. The CPU processing led on backend servers is reduced
  • D. The organization requires far less SSL certificates
  • E. It increases the bandwidth between the client and LTM

Answer: E

 

NEW QUESTION 78
Which three of these scenarios should you identify as being an APM opportunity?

  • A. An organization with a single location and no remote employees
  • B. An organization that has been recently fined for failing security compliance
  • C. An organization with a traveling sales force
  • D. An organization sharing a public Web site for all Internet users
  • E. An organization that needs to ensure users are using Symantec antivirus software
  • F. An organization using Novell Netware for authentication

Answer: B,C,E

 

NEW QUESTION 79
Which statement is true regarding fail-over?

  • A. Hardware fail-over is disabled by default.
  • B. If the hardware fail-over cable is disconnected, both BIG-IP devices will always assume the active role.
  • C. Hardware fail-over can be used in conjunction with network failover.
  • D. By default, hardware fail-over detects voltage across the fail-over cable and monitors traffic across the internal VLAN.

Answer: C

 

NEW QUESTION 80
Which of the following storage type combinations are configurable in an ASM logging profile?

  • A. Local and Syslog
  • B. Remote and Syslog
  • C. Remote and Reporting Server
  • D. Local and Remote

Answer: D

 

NEW QUESTION 81
In an active/standby high-availability mode, what causes a standby unit to assume the active role?

  • A. resource utilization
  • B. Hashed unit iD
  • C. management MAC address
  • D. heartbeat detection

Answer: D

Explanation:
https://supportf5.com/csP/article/K95002127

 

NEW QUESTION 82
A user's access to resources can change based on the computer they connect from.

  • A. True
  • B. False

Answer: A

Explanation:
Explanation/Reference:

 

NEW QUESTION 83
An administrator needs to prepare change control documents for operations staff To reduce possible errors the administrator killed number of default configuration options is choose from. Which F5 feature is intended to help with this task?

  • A. iRules
  • B. iCatl
  • C. iApp
  • D. icontrol

Answer: D

Explanation:
https://devcentral.f5.com/icontrol

 

NEW QUESTION 84
Basic F5 IP Geo location provides which four types of client information? (Choose four.)

  • A. Carrier
  • B. State
  • C. City
  • D. Continent
  • E. Postal code
  • F. Country

Answer: A,B,D,F

Explanation:
Explanation
State - Country - Continent - City
State - Country - Postal code - City
The BIG-IP system uses geo location software to identify the geographic location of a client or web application user. The default IP geo location database provides IPv4 addresses at the continent, country, state, ISP, and organization levels, and IPv6 addresses at the continent and country levels. The database consists of the following files:
F5GeoIP.dat
F5GeoIPv6.dat
F5GeoIPISP.dat
F5GeoIPOrg.dat

 

NEW QUESTION 85
Which statement describes advanced shell access correctly?

  • A. Users with advanced shell access can always change, add, or delete LTM objects in all partition.
  • B. Users with advance shell access have the same right as those with msh access, but right extend to all partition rather than to a single partition.
  • C. Users with advance shell access are limited to changing, adding, or deleting LTM object in any single partition.
  • D. All Users can be given advanced shell access.

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 86
Which of the following methods of protection are used by the BIG-IP ASM System to mitigate buffer overflow attacks?

  • A. Length restrictions and attack signatures
  • B. HTTP RFC compliancy checks
  • C. Length restrictions and site cookie compliancy checks
  • D. Metacharacter enforcement and HTTP RFC compliancy check

Answer: A

 

NEW QUESTION 87
......


F5 offers multiple certification tracks that cover a wide variety of job roles like Administrator, Technical Professional, Technical Specialist, and Solution Expert. And, in order to get started in any of those tracks, you will have to complete the F5 101 Application Delivery Fundamentals exam.

 

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