ISTQB-CTFL Practice Dumps - Verified By DumpsValid Updated 132 Questions
Updated ISTQB-CTFL Exam Dumps - PDF Questions and Testing Engine
NEW QUESTION # 42
Which of the following coverage criteria results in the highest coverage for state transition based test cases?
- A. Can't be determined
- B. Covering all states at least once
- C. Covering only start and end states
- D. Covering all transitions at least once
Answer: D
Explanation:
Covering all transitions at least once is the highest coverage criterion for state transition based test cases, because it ensures that every possible change of state is tested at least once. This means that all the events that trigger the transitions, as well as the actions and outputs that result from the transitions, are verified. Covering all transitions at least once also implies covering all states at least once, but not vice versa. Therefore, option D is not the highest coverage criterion. Option C is the lowest coverage criterion, because it only tests the initial and final states of the system or component, without checking the intermediate states or transitions. Option A is incorrect, because the coverage criteria for state transition based test cases can be determined and compared based on the number of transitions and states covered. References = CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, Section 4.2.3, page
49-50.
NEW QUESTION # 43
Which of the following sentences describe a product risk?
- A. Failure in acquiring an adequate and test automation tool
- B. The application might not be able to provide the expected responsiveness under a load of up-lo 300 concurrent users
- C. A wrong configuration of the test environment that causes incidents related to the environment and not to the software under test
- D. The development team lacks knowledge of the technology on which the product is based
Answer: B
Explanation:
This question relates to identifying product risks, which are potential problems associated with the product itself, such as software functionality, reliability, usability, and performance. Option A describes a scenario where the application might not meet performance requirements under specific conditions (up to 300 concurrent users), which directly impacts the product's ability to perform its intended function. This is a classic example of a product risk, as it concerns the product's quality and its ability to meet user needs. Options B, C, and D, on the other hand, relate to project risks, which are concerns related to the management and execution of the project, such as tool acquisition, environment configuration, and team expertise, rather than the quality of the product itself.
NEW QUESTION # 44
In which of the following test documents would you expect to find test exit criteria described9
- A. Test plan
- B. Test design specification
- C. Project plan
- D. Requirements specification
Answer: A
Explanation:
Test exit criteria are the conditions that must be fulfilled before concluding a particular testing phase. These criteria act as a checkpoint to assess whether we have achieved the testing objectives and are done with testing1. Test exit criteria are typically defined in the test plan document, which is one of the outputs of the test planning phase. The test plan document describes the scope, approach, resources, and schedule of the testing activities. It also identifies the test items, the features to be tested, the testing tasks, the risks, and the test deliverables2. According to the ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, the test plan document should include the following information related to the test exit criteria3:
* The criteria for evaluating test completion, such as the percentage of test cases executed, the percentage of test coverage achieved, the number and severity of defects found and fixed, the quality and reliability of the software product, and the stakeholder satisfaction.
* The criteria for evaluating test process improvement, such as the adherence to the test strategy, the efficiency and effectiveness of the testing activities, the lessons learned and best practices identified, and the recommendations for future improvements.
Therefore, the test plan document is the most appropriate test document to find the test exit criteria described.
The other options, such as test design specification, project plan, and requirements specification, are not directly related to the test exit criteria. The test design specification describes the test cases and test procedures for a specific test level or test type3. The project plan describes the overall objectives, scope, assumptions, risks, and deliverables of the software project4. The requirements specification describes the functional and non-functional requirements of the software product5. None of these documents specify the conditions for ending the testing process or evaluating the testing outcomes. References = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Entry and Exit Criteria in Software Testing | Baeldung on Computer Science, Entry And Exit Criteria In Software Testing - Rishabh Software, Entry and Exit Criteria in Software Testing Life Cycle - STLC [2022 Updated] - Testsigma Blog, ISTQB releases Certified Tester Foundation Level v4.0 (CTFL).
NEW QUESTION # 45
Consider the following statements about risk-based testing.
I) Risk-based testing has the objective to reduce the level of protect risks.
II) Tests should be prioritized to find tie critical detects as early as possible.
III) Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk
IV) Risks have to bereassessedon a regular basis.
V) The project stakeholders can give useful input to determine the risks
- A. I III IV and V are true. II is false.
- B. C. I, II and IV are true.IIIand V are false.
- C. II, IIIIVandVarecorrect. I isfalse.
- D. II, Ill and V are true.1antsIv are false.
Answer: C
Explanation:
The following statements about risk-based testing are correct:
* II) Tests should be prioritized to find tie critical detects as early as possible. Risk-based testing involves prioritizing tests based on risk level, which reflects both the likelihood and impact of defects or failures.
Tests with higher risk level should be executed earlier than tests with lower risk level, in order to find and fix critical defects as soon as possible.
* III) Non-testing activities may also help to reduce risk. Risk-based testing does not only involve testing activities, but also other activities that can help mitigate risks, such as reviews, inspections, audits,
* simulations or prototyping.
NEW QUESTION # 46
Which of the following applications will be the MOST suitable for testing by Use Cases
- A. Suitability and performance of a Multi media (audio video based) system to a new operating system
- B. Accuracy and usability of a new Navigation system compared with previous system
- C. The ability of an Anti virus package to detect and quarantine a new threat
- D. A billing system used to calculate monthly charge based or large number of subscribers parameters
Answer: B
Explanation:
A new navigation system compared with a previous system is the most suitable application for testing by use cases, because it involves a high level of interaction between the user and the system, and the expected behavior and outcomes of the system are based on the user's needs and goals. Use cases can help to specify the functional requirements of the new navigation system, such as the ability to enter a destination, select a route, follow the directions, receive alerts, etc. Use cases can also help to compare the accuracy and usability of the new system with the previous system, by defining the success and failure scenarios, the preconditions and postconditions, and the alternative flows of each use case. Use cases can also help to design and execute test cases that cover the main and exceptional paths of each use case, and to verify the satisfaction of the user's expectations.
The other options are not the most suitable applications for testing by use cases, because they do not involve a high level of interaction between the user and the system, or the expected behavior and outcomes of the system are not based on the user's needs and goals. A billing system used to calculate monthly charge based on a large number of subscriber parameters is more suitable for testing by data-driven testing, which is a technique for testing the functionality and performance of a system or component by using a large set of input and output data. The ability of an antivirus package to detect and quarantine a new threat is more suitable for testing by exploratory testing, which is a technique for testing the functionality and security of a system or component by using an informal and flexible approach, based on the tester's experience and intuition. Thesuitability and performance of a multimedia (audio video based) system to a new operating system is more suitable for testing by compatibility testing, which is a technique for testing the functionality and performance of a system or component by using different hardware, software, or network environments. References = CTFL 4.0 Syllabus, Section 3.1.1, page 28-29; Section 4.1.1, page 44-45; Section 4.2.1, page 47-48.
NEW QUESTION # 47
The following incident report that was generated during test of a web application.
What would you suggest asthe most importantreport improvement?
Defect detected date: 15 8.2010
Defect detected by: Joe Smith
Test level System test
Test case: Area 5/TC 98
Build version: 2011-16.2
Defect description After having filled out all required fields in screen 1, t click ENTER to continue to screen2 Nothing happens, no system response at all.
- A. Add an impact analysis
- B. Add the time stamp when the incident happened
- C. Add information about which developer should fix the bug
- D. Add information about which web browser was used
Answer: D
Explanation:
The most important report improvement for the given incident report would be to add information about which web browser was used when the defect was detected. This information is relevant for reproducing and debugging the defect, as different web browsers may have different behaviors or compatibility issues with the web application. The other options are less important or irrelevant for the incident report. The developer who should fix the bug can be assigned by the project manager or the defect tracking system, not by the tester who reports the defect. The time stamp when the incident happened is not very useful, as it does not indicate the cause or the frequency of the defect. The impact analysis is not part of the incident report, but rather of the risk assessment or prioritization process. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level
2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 140.
NEW QUESTION # 48
Given the following requirement:
Requirement ID: 2 8
Requirement Description Additional Entrance Fee
Detailed Description
An additional fee of S3 is charged during the weekend, but
1) Visitors aged under 7 are not charged.
2) Visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive get a 20% discount off the additional fee.
3) Visitors aged greater than 65 get a 50% discount off the additional fee.
Age should be an integer of 0 or above.
Weekend means Friday to Sunday inclusive.
Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
- A. Thursday is a valid input boundary value.
- B. 7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10.
- C. A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age.
- D. $3.01 is a valid output boundary value.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Boundary value analysis is a technique that tests boundary values between partitions of equivalent data. Boundary values are values at the edge of an equivalence partition or at the smallest incremental distance on either side of an edge. Boundary value analysis can be applied to both input and output values. Based on the given requirement, we can identify two input values: age and weekend. Age should be an integer of 0 or above, and weekend means Friday to Sunday inclusive. The following statement is not correct:
A) Thursday is a valid input boundary value. This statement is not correct, as Thursday is not a boundary value for the input weekend. The boundary values for the input weekend are Friday and Sunday, as they are at the edge of the equivalence partition that represents weekend days. The following statements are correct:
B) A minimum of 6 valid test cases are derived from boundary value analysis based on input age. This statement is correct, as we can derive six valid test cases based on input age by using the minimum and maximum values for each equivalence partition defined by the requirement. The equivalence partitions for input age are: under 7 (0 to 6), 7 to 13 inclusive (7 to 13), and greater than 65 (66 and above). The minimum and maximum values for each partition are: 0 and 6, 7 and 13, and 66 and any value above it.
C) $3.01 is a valid output boundary value. This statement is correct, as $3.01 is a boundary value for the output additional fee. The additional fee can have four possible values depending on the input age: $0 (for visitors aged under 7), $2.40 (for visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive with a 20% discount), $1.50 (for visitors aged greater than 65 with a 50% discount), and $3 (for visitors aged between 14 and 65). The boundary values for the output additional fee are $0 and $3, as they are at the edge of an equivalence partition or at the smallest incremental distance on either side of an edge. Therefore, $3.01 is a valid output boundary value, as it is at the smallest incremental distance above $3.
D) 7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition including age 10. This statement is correct, as 7 and 13 are boundary values for the equivalence partition that represents visitors aged 7 to 13 inclusive. This partition includes age 10, which is an internal value within the partition. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 4, page 37-38.
NEW QUESTION # 49
A system has a self-diagnostics module that starts executing after the system is reset. The diagnostics are running 12 different tests on the systems memory hardware. The following is one of the requirements set for the diagnostics module:
'The time taking the diagnostics tests to execute shall be less than 2 seconds' Which of the following is a failure related to the specified requirement?
- A. The diagnostic tests fail to start after a system reset
- B. The diagnostic tests that measure the speed of the memory, fail
- C. The diagnostic tests take too much time to execute
- D. The diagnostic tests fail due to incorrect implementation of the test code
Answer: C
Explanation:
A failure is an event in which a component or system does not perform a required function within specified limits1. A requirement is a condition or capability needed by a user to solve a problem or achieve an objective2. In this case, the requirement is that the diagnostics tests should execute in less than 2 seconds. Therefore, any event that violates this requirement is a failure. The only option that clearly violates this requirement is B. The diagnostic tests take too much time to execute. If the diagnostic tests take more than 2 seconds to complete, then they do not meet the specified limit and thus fail. The other options are not necessarily failures related to the specified requirement. Option A. The diagnostic tests fail to start after a system reset is a failure, but not related to the time limit. It is related to the functionality of the self-diagnostics module. Option C. The diagnostic tests that measure the speed of the memory, fail is also a failure, but not related to the time limit. It is related to the accuracy of the memory tests. Option D. The diagnostic tests fail due to incorrect implementation of the test code is also a failure, but not related to the time limit. It is related to the quality of the test code. Reference = ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, Requirements Engineering Fundamentals.
NEW QUESTION # 50
How can testing contribute to higher quality?
- A. Testing help to measure the quality of software.
- B. Testing ensures that remaining defects are documented.
- C. Testing removes errors in the software.
- D. Testing eliminates the risk with software.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Testing can contribute to higher quality by helping to measure the quality of software. Quality is defined as the degree to which a component or system satisfies specified requirements and customer or user needs and expectations. Testing is a process of evaluating a component or system by applying inputs and observing outputs, and comparing them with expected results. Testing can help to measure the quality of software by providing information on its functionality, performance, usability, security, reliability, etc. Testing can also help to identify and report defects in software, which can lead to improvement actions and quality assurance activities. The other options are not accurate descriptions of how testing can contribute to higher quality. Testing does not ensure that remaining defects are documented, but rather that detected defects are reported. Testing does not remove errors in software, but rather finds defects in software behavior or quality. Testing does not eliminate the risk with software, but rather assesses and manages the risk with software. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 3.
NEW QUESTION # 51
During system testing phase of a word processor, a tester finds that on opening a file from a particular set of files, which are part of a critical workflow, the word processor crashes. Which of the following is the next step the tester should take poor to recording the deviation?
- A. Report the incident as is without any further action
- B. Send an email to the developer and not report the bug
- C. Try to identify the code fragment causing the problem
- D. Try to recreate the incident before reporting
Answer: D
Explanation:
An incident is any event that occurs during testing that requires investigation. An incident report is a document that records the details of an incident. The next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation is to try to recreate the incident before reporting. This can help confirm that the incident is reproducible and not caused by a random or external factor. This can also help gather more information about the incident, such as the steps to reproduce it, the expected and actual results, the severity and priority of the incident, or any screenshots or logs that can illustrate the incident. Trying to identify the code fragment causing the problem is not the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation, as this is a debugging activity that is usually performed by developers after receiving the incident report. Sending an email to the developer and not reporting the bug is not the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation, as this is an informal and unstructured way of communicating incidents that can lead to confusion, inconsistency or loss of information. Reporting the incident as is without any further action is not the next step the tester should take prior to recording the deviation, as this can result in incomplete or inaccurate incident reports that can hamper the investigation and resolution of incidents. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 3, page 32-33.
NEW QUESTION # 52
A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.
Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?
- A. It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product
- B. It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests
- C. It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it
- D. It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.
Answer: A
Explanation:
* A product risk is a risk that affects the quality or timeliness of the software product being developed or tested1. Product risks are related to the requirements, design, implementation, verification, and maintenance of the software product2.
* The risk of the sub-contractor failing to meet his commitment is a product risk, as it could cause a delay in the completion of the testing required for the current cycle, which in turn could affect the release date of the product. The release date is an important aspect of the product quality, as it reflects the customer satisfaction and the market competitiveness of the product3.
* The other options are not correct because:
* A. It is not true that any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk. Some risks could be project risks, which are risks that affect the management or control of the software project, such as budget, resources, schedule, or communication1. For example, a risk of losing a key project stakeholder is a project risk, not a product risk.
* B. It is not true that the risk is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party is managing it. The Test Manager is still responsible for ensuring that the testing activities are completed according to the test plan and the quality objectives4. The Test Manager should monitor and control the sub-contractor's performance and communicate with him regularly to identify and mitigate any potential issues or deviations5.
* C. It is not clear what is meant by "object" in this option, but it could be interpreted as the software system under test or the test object6. In any case, the risk is not an object risk, as it does not affect the successful completion of the object, but rather the successful completion of the testing of the object. An object risk could be a risk that affects the functionality, reliability, usability, efficiency, maintainability, or portability of the software system under test2. For example, a risk of the software system having a high complexity or a low testability is an object risk, not a product risk.
References =
* 1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 97
* 2 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 98
* 3 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 99
* 4 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 100
* 5 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 101
* 6 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 102
NEW QUESTION # 53
The following sentences refer to the 'Standard for Software Test Documentation' specification (IEEE 829).
Which sentence is correct?
- A. Any deviation from this standard should be approved by management, marketing & development
- B. The key to high quality test documentation regimes is strict adherence to this standard
- C. This test plan outline is relevant for military projects. For consumer market projects there is a different specification with fewer items.
- D. Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization
Answer: D
Explanation:
The IEEE 829 standard is a widely used specification for test documentation, but it is not mandatory or universal. Most test documentation regimes follow this spec to some degree, with changes done to fit a specific situation or organization. The standard does not require any approval from management, marketing or development for any deviation, nor does it depend on the type of project (military or consumer market). The standard also does not guarantee high quality test documentation regimes, as it only provides a general outline and format, not the actual content or quality criteria. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 16.
NEW QUESTION # 54
In what way do Configuration Management effects testing?
- A. There is very little influence of configuration management practices on the test project.
- B. Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identity the tested item
- C. Configuration management is important for developers, not for testers
- D. Without proper configuration management, test planning cannot proceed.
Answer: B
Explanation:
Configuration management is a process that establishes and maintains consistency among work products throughout their life cycle. Configuration management affects testing in various ways, such as:
* Proper configuration management ensures that testers can uniquely identify the tested item, which can help traceability, reproducibility and accountability.
* Proper configuration management ensures that testers have access to consistent versions of software components and testware, which can help reliability, compatibility and efficiency.
* Proper configuration management ensures that testers can track changes and defects in software components and testware, which can help verification, validation and reporting.
* Proper configuration management ensures that testers can control the configuration of the test environment, which can help stability, security and performance. Configuration management is not a prerequisite for test planning, as test planning can proceed without configuration management, although it may be less effective or accurate. Configuration management is not important for developers only, but for testers as well, as it affects the quality and consistency of the testing process and products.
Configuration management has a significant influence on the test project, as it affects various aspects of testing, such as traceability, reproducibility, reliability, compatibility, efficiency, verification, validation, reporting, stability, security and performance. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, Chapter 6, page 60-61.
NEW QUESTION # 55
Which of the following issues cannot be identified by static analysis tools?
- A. Referencing a variable with an undefined value
- B. Very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)
- C. Security vulnerabilities
- D. Potentially endless loops
Answer: B
Explanation:
Static analysis tools are software tools that examine the source code of a program without executing it. They can detect various types of issues, such as syntax errors, coding standards violations, security vulnerabilities, and potential bugs12. However, static analysis tools cannot identify issues that depend on the runtime behavior or performance of the program, such as very low MTBF (Mean Time Between failure)3. MTBF is a measure of the reliability of a system or component. It is calculated by dividing the total operating time by the number of failures. MTBF reflects how often a system or component fails during its expected lifetime. Static analysis tools cannot measure MTBF because they do not run the program or observe its failures. MTBF can only be estimated by dynamic testing, which involves executing the program under various conditions and collecting data on its failures4. Therefore, very low MTBF is an issue that cannot be identified by static analysis tools. The other options, such as potentially endless loops, referencing a variable with an undefined value, and security vulnerabilities, are issues that can be identified by static analysis tools. Static analysis tools can detect potentially endless loops by analyzing the control flow and data flow of the program and checking for conditions that may never become false5. Static analysis tools can detect referencing a variable with an undefined value by checking the scope and initialization of variables and reporting any use of uninitialized variables6. Static analysis tools can detect security vulnerabilities by checking for common patterns of insecure code, such as buffer overflows, SQL injections, cross-site scripting, and weak encryption. Reference = What Is Static Analysis? Static Code Analysis Tools - Perforce Software, How Static Code Analysis Works | Perforce, Static Code Analysis: Techniques, Top 5 Benefits & 3 Challenges, What is MTBF? Mean Time Between Failures Explained | Perforce, Static analysis tools - Software Testing MCQs - CareerRide, ISTQB_Chapter3 | Quizizz, [Static Code Analysis for Security Vulnerabilities | Perforce].
NEW QUESTION # 56
You need to test the login page of a web site. The page contains fields for user name and password. Which test design techniques are most appropriate for this case?
- A. Decision table testing, state transition testing.
- B. Exploratory testing, statement coverage.
- C. Equivalence partitioning, Boundary value analysis.
- D. Decision coverage, fault attack.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis are test design techniques that are most appropriate for testing the login page of a web site. The page contains fields for user name and password, which are input values that can be divided into partitions of equivalent data. Equivalence partitioning is a technique that divides the input data and output results of a software component into partitions of equivalent data. Each partition should contain data that is treated in the same way by the component.Equivalence partitioning can be used to reduce the number of test cases by selecting one representative value from each partition. Boundary value analysis is a technique that tests boundary values between partitions of equivalent data. Boundary values are values at the edge of an equivalence partition or at the smallest incremental distance on either side of an edge. Boundary value analysis can be used to detect defects caused by incorrect handling of boundary conditions. For example, for testing the user name field, we can identify two equivalence partitions: valid user name (existing and correct) and invalid user name (non-existing or incorrect). The boundary values for these partitions are the minimum and maximum length of user name allowed by the system.
Decision table testing and state transition testing are not suitable for testing the login page of a web site, as they are more applicable for testing components that have multiple inputs and outputs that depend on logical combinations of conditions or events. Decision table testing is a technique that shows combinations of inputs and/or stimuli (causes) with their associated outputs and/or actions (effects). State transition testing is a technique that models how a system transitions from one state to another depending on events or conditions.
Exploratory testing and statement coverage are not suitable for testing the login page of a web site, as they are more applicable for testing components that require learning, creativity and intuition or structural analysis.
Exploratory testing is an approach to testing that emphasizes learning, test design and test execution at the same time. Exploratory testing relies on the tester's skills, creativity and intuition to explore the software under test and discover defects. Statement coverage is a type of structural testing that measures how many statements in a program have been executed by a test suite. Statement coverage can be used to assess the adequacy or completeness of a test suite.
Decision coverage and fault attack are not suitable for testing the login page of a web site, as they are more applicable for testing components that have complex logic or potential errors. Decision coverage is a type of structural testing that measures how many decision outcomes in a program have been executed by a test suite.
Decision coverage can be used to assess the adequacy or completeness of a test suite. Fault attack is a type of functional testing that deliberately introduces faults into a system in order to provoke failures or errors.
Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 4, page 34-46; Chapter 5, page 47-48.
NEW QUESTION # 57
For withdrawing money tram an Automated Teller Machine (ATM), the following conditions are required:
- The bank card is valid
- The PIN code is correct
- Money is available in the user's account
The following are some possible interactions between the user and the ATM:
- The entered card is invalid The card is rejected
- The PIN code is wrong The ATM asks for another PIN code
- The requested amount is more than available in the user's account: The ATM asks for another amount
- The requested amount is available in the user's account The ATM dispenses the money Which test design technique should be used to cover all possible combinations of the in put conditions?
- A. Boundary value analysis
- B. Use case based testing
- C. Decision table
- D. Equivalence class partitioning
Answer: C
Explanation:
A decision table is a technique that should be used to cover all possible combinations of input conditions for withdrawing money from an Automated Teller Machine (ATM). A decision table shows combinations of inputs and/or stimuli (causes) with their associated outputs and/or actions (effects). A decision table consists of four quadrants: conditions (inputs), actions (outputs), condition entries (values) and action entries (results). A decision table can be used to test components that have multiple inputs and outputs that depend on logical combinations of conditions. For example, for testing the ATM, we can identify three input conditions: the bank card is valid, the PIN code is correct, and money is available in the user's account. We can also identify four output actions: the card is rejected, the ATM asks for another PIN code, the ATM asks for another amount, and the ATM dispenses the money. A decision table can show all possible combinations of these conditions and actions in a systematic way.
Use case based testing is not a technique that can cover all possible combinations of input conditions for withdrawing money from an ATM. Use case based testing is a technique that verifies that a software product or system meets its specified requirements or user stories by executing realistic scenarios or workflows. Use case based testing can be used to test components that have complex or dynamic interactions with users or other systems. For example, for testing the ATM, we can identify several use cases, such as withdraw money, check balance, transfer money, etc.Each use case can have one or more scenarios that describe the steps and outcomes of the interaction. However, use case based testing may not cover all possible combinations of input conditions, as some scenarios may be omitted or overlooked.
Boundary value analysis is not a technique that can cover all possible combinations of input conditions for withdrawing money from an ATM. Boundary value analysis is a technique that tests boundary values between partitions of equivalent data. Boundary values are values at the edge of an equivalence partition or at the smallest incremental distance on either side of an edge. Boundary value analysis can be used to test components that have input values that can be divided into partitions of equivalent data. For example, for testing the ATM, we can identify boundary values for the input amount, such as the minimum and maximum amount allowed by the system or the user's account. However, boundary value analysis may not cover all possible combinations of input conditions, as some conditions may not have boundary values or may not be related to input values.
Equivalence class partitioning is not a technique that can cover all possible combinations of input conditions for withdrawing money from an ATM. Equivalence class partitioning is a technique that divides the input data and output results of a software component into partitions of equivalent data. Each partition should contain data that is treated in the same way by the component. Equivalence class partitioning can be used to test components that have input values that can be divided into partitions of equivalent data. For example, for testing the ATM, we can identify equivalence partitions for the input amount, such as valid amount (within the range allowed by the system and the user's account) and invalid amount (outside the range allowed by the system or the user's account). However, equivalence class partitioning may not cover all possible combinations of input conditions, as some conditions may not be related to input values or may have more than two partitions. Verified References: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 4, page 34-46.
NEW QUESTION # 58
Which of the following statements is LEAST likely to be describing component testing?
- A. It identifies defects in modules and classes.
- B. It may be applied using a test-first approach.
- C. It mainly tests interfaces and interaction between components.
- D. Simulators and stubs may be required.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Component testing (also known as unit testing or module testing) is a level of testing that focuses on verifying the functionality and quality of individual software components (such as modules, classes, functions, methods, etc.). Component testing mainly tests interfaces and interaction between components, as well as internal logic and data structures of the components. Component testing may be applied using a test-first approach (such as test-driven development or behavior-driven development), where tests are written before the code is implemented. Component testing does not identify defects in modules and classes, as this is a result of component testing, not an objective. Simulators and stubs may be required for component testing, as they can simulate or replace missing or incomplete components or external systems that are needed for testing. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 19.
NEW QUESTION # 59
Manager responsibilities in formal review includes ad except one of the following:
- A. Planning the review
- B. Determines if the review objectives have been met
- C. Decide on the execution of reviews
- D. Allocate time for review
Answer: B
Explanation:
A formal review is a type of review that follows a defined process with formal entry and exit criteria and roles and responsibilities for participants. A formal review can have various roles involved, such as manager, moderator, author, reviewer and scribe. The manager responsibilities in formal review include all except one of the following:
Planning the review (correct responsibility)
Determines if the review objectives have been met (incorrect responsibility) Decide on the execution of reviews (correct responsibility) Allocate time for review (correct responsibility) The responsibility of determining if the review objectives have been met belongs to the moderator role, not to the manager role. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 3, page 28-29.
NEW QUESTION # 60
Which of the following does MOT describe a reason why testing is necessary?
- A. The customer decided that 100% branch coverage shall be achieved
- B. The risks associated with delivering the system are far higher than the cost of testing
- C. The acquisition of test automation tools was based on the assumption that it will be used m all projects
- D. For avionics and pharmaceutical systems software testing is mandated by standards
Answer: C
Explanation:
Testing is necessary for various reasons, such as:
To detect defects and failures that may affect the quality, performance, reliability or security of a software product or system To verify that a software product or system meets its specified requirements, expectations and standards To validate that a software product or system fulfills its intended purpose and satisfies its stakeholders' needs To provide information and feedback about the status and risks of a software product or system To comply with regulations or contractual obligations that mandate testing for certain types of software products or systems The following statements describe some reasons why testing is necessary:
A) The customer decided that 100% branch coverage shall be achieved. This is a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a contractual obligation or a quality standard that requires testing to measure and achieve a certain level of code coverage.
C) For avionics and pharmaceutical systems software testing is mandated by standards. This is a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a regulation or a compliance requirement that mandates testing for certain types of software products or systems that have high safety or security risks.
D) The risks associated with delivering the system are far higher than the cost of testing. This is a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a risk-based approach that considers testing as an investment to reduce the probability and impact of potential failures or defects. The following statement does not describe a reason why testing is necessary:
B) The acquisition of test automation tools was based on the assumption that it will be used m all projects. This is not a reason why testing is necessary, as it reflects a business decision or a resource allocation that does not justify the need or purpose of testing. Test automation tools are not always suitable or beneficial for all projects, and testing can be performed with or without test automation tools. Verified Reference: [A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer], Chapter 1, page 5-6.
NEW QUESTION # 61
A Test Manager conducts risk assessment for a project. One of the identified risks is: The sub-contractor may fail to meet his commitment". If this risk materializes. it will lead to delay in completion of testing required for the current cycle.
Which of the following sentences correctly describes the risk?
- A. It is a product risk since default on part of the sub-contractor may lead to delay in release of the product
- B. It is a object risk since successful completion of the object depends on successful and timely completion of the tests
- C. It is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party (the sub-contractor) is now managing it
- D. It is a product risk since any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk.
Answer: A
Explanation:
A product risk is a risk that affects the quality or timeliness of the software product being developed or tested1. Product risks are related to the requirements, design, implementation, verification, and maintenance of the software product2.
The risk of the sub-contractor failing to meet his commitment is a product risk, as it could cause a delay in the completion of the testing required for the current cycle, which in turn could affect the release date of the product. The release date is an important aspect of the product quality, as it reflects the customer satisfaction and the market competitiveness of the product3.
The other options are not correct because:
A) It is not true that any risk associated with development timeline is a product risk. Some risks could be project risks, which are risks that affect the management or control of the software project, such as budget, resources, schedule, or communication1. For example, a risk of losing a key project stakeholder is a project risk, not a product risk.
B) It is not true that the risk is no longer a risk for the Test Manager since an independent party is managing it. The Test Manager is still responsible for ensuring that the testing activities are completed according to the test plan and the quality objectives4. The Test Manager should monitor and control the sub-contractor's performance and communicate with him regularly to identify and mitigate any potential issues or deviations5.
C) It is not clear what is meant by "object" in this option, but it could be interpreted as the software system under test or the test object6. In any case, the risk is not an object risk, as it does not affect the successful completion of the object, but rather the successful completion of the testing of the object. An object risk could be a risk that affects the functionality, reliability, usability, efficiency, maintainability, or portability of the software system under test2. For example, a risk of the software system having a high complexity or a low testability is an object risk, not a product risk.
Reference =
1 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 97
2 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 98
3 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 99
4 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 100
5 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 101
6 ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level Syllabus v4.0, 2023, p. 102
NEW QUESTION # 62
The following chart represents metrics related to testing of a project that was competed. Indicate what is represented by tie lines A, B and the axes X.Y
- A.
- B.
- C.
- D.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Option D correctly explains what is represented by the lines A, B and the axes X, Y in a testing metrics chart.
According to option D:
* X-axis represents Time
* Y-axis represents Count
* Line A represents Number of open bugs
* Line B represents Total number of executed tests
This information is essential in understanding and analyzing the testing metrics of a completed project.
References: ISTQB Certified Tester Foundation Level (CTFL) v4.0 Syllabus, Section 2.5.1, Page 35.
NEW QUESTION # 63
Which of the following should be included in a test status report?
I Estimation details
II Total number of open and closed defects
III Actual effort spent
IV Defect reports
V Number of executed, failed, blocked tests
- A. I. II. IV
- B. II, III.V
- C. II, III
- D. III.V
Answer: B
Explanation:
The following should be included in a test status report: total number of open and closed defects, actual effort spent, and number of executed, failed, and blocked tests. A test status report is a document that provides information on the results and status of testing activities for a given period or phase. A test status report should include information that is relevant, accurate, and timely for the intended audience and purpose. Some of the information that should be included in a test status report are: total number of open and closed defects, which can indicate the defect trend and defect density of the software product; actual effort spent, which can indicate the productivity and efficiency of the testing process; number of executed, failed, and blocked tests, which can indicate the test progress and test coverage of the software product. The following should not be included in a test status report: estimation details, defect reports, and impact analysis. Estimation details are not part of a test status report, but rather part of a test plan or a test estimation document. Estimation details provide information on the expected time, resources, and costs for testing activities, not on the actual results or status of testing activities. Defect reports are not part of a test status report, but rather separate documents that provide detailed information on individual defects found during testing. Defect reports include information such as defect description, defect severity, defect priority, defect status, defect resolution, etc. Defect reports can be referenced or summarized in a test status report, but not included in full. Impact analysis is not part of a test status report, but rather part of a risk assessment or prioritization process. Impact analysis provides information on the potential effects or consequences of a change or a defect on the software product or project. Impact analysis can be used to evaluate the amount or scope of testing to be performed, but not to report the results or status of testing activities. Verified Reference: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 141.
NEW QUESTION # 64
The testers in company A were part of the development team. Due to an organizational change they moved to be part of the support team.
What are the advantages and the disadvantages of this change?
- A. Advantage: More independence in deciding what and how to test,Disadvantage: Isolation from me development team knowledge
- B. Advantage: being closer to customer perspective,Disadvantage less independence in perspectives
- C. Advantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing, Disadvantage less chances to move a tester to development
- D. Advantage: increased chances to move a tester to development; Disadvantage: pulled to support tasks and having less time for testing
Answer: B
Explanation:
Being part of the support team means that the testers are closer to the customer perspective, which is an advantage for testing, as they can better understand the user needs and expectations, and identify more realistic scenarios and risks. However, being part of the support team also means that they have less independence in deciding what and how to test, as they may be influenced by the customer's preferences or requests, which could compromise the objectivity and effectiveness of testing. Verified References: A Study Guide to the ISTQB Foundation Level 2018 Syllabus - Springer, page 6.
NEW QUESTION # 65
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